The written English language is a frustration

Let's look at the word once.
Why is it not written wonce?
It was written as such, but we need to go back to the 16th century where there is an example.
1599.
The rebell wonce in Rorie O More shewed himselfe, withe about 500 foote and 40 horse, 2 myles from our campe.
(The rebel, Rorie O More wonce showed himself, with about 500 foot soldiers and 40 horses, 2 miles from our camp.)
Someone, somewhere down the track decided to change the spelling to once.

Top | New | Old

SunshineGirl · 36-40, F

That got me looking . .

I think it comes from the Old English aenes, which in turn is derived from the Old Norse enes (similar to Modern German eins), neither of which would have been pronounced with a W- . . which leaves the question of how the current pronunciation came about.

DeWayfarer · 61-69, M

French influence in the English language is very evident. You must as well look even before the French with Roman Latin influence.

Most religious scrolls where in Latin before the KJV of the bible before 1611. And of course the Gutenberg Bible of 1455 was in German.

Only the wealthy educated people could even read because of that religious latin influence. The printing press changed everything. Far fewer mistakes being one of the changes.

Yet it took time for the common people to even get access to even the KJV Bible. Poor people just didn't have the money.

Most of the wealthy actually read Latin fairly well if perhaps a bit broken.

Add a comment...