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GJOFJ3 Matthew 5:48.
Two things must be noticed about this command. First, the meaning of the word perfect that Jesus Christ used was not “Flawless, without error, and never making a mistake” the footnote clarifies being “perfect” as being “complete, finished, fully developed.” (Footnote 48 b perfect).
www.studylight.org/commentary/1-corinthians/13...
"Perfect" (same word) love "casts out fear" ( 1 John 4:18). Translators could have chosen the word "complete" instead of the word perfect in 1 Corinthians 13:10. Here and elsewhere the word perfect describes completeness instead of referring to Jesus, heaven, or a literal "perfect state" on the earth.
Is it possible that every translation is fully correct?
No, it is not possible that 100% of every translation is fully correct.
And Mr. Heiser agrees! In his last email directly to me, he stated that of course there are mistranslations in the Bible and listed a couple for me (Gen 35:7 - 13, Psalms 82:1).
He points out that these passages mix up plural and singular forms of the word "gods/Elohim" and singular/plural grammar. He thereby agrees with Sitchin’s thesis that the old translations have mistakes, made from editing, scribes or translators, either purposeful or by accident. He simply doesn’t agree that every translation is incorrect, but Sitchin does not say that every translation is incorrect.
https://www.bibliotecapleyades.net/biblianazar/esp_biblianazar_22.htm#Is%20it%20possible%20that%20every%20translation%20is%20fully%20correct
"Transliteration"
Each of the section titles below is an English, Hebrew, or Greek word from the Bible that has been left untranslated. The term for this is "transliteration."
https://www.rebuildingthefoundations.org/bible-transliteration.html
