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Quick math test...

Poll - Total Votes: 12
divide by 2 (2 4 6 8 10 etc...)
divide by 3 (3 6 9 12 15 etc...)
divide by 5 (5 10 15 20 25 etc...)
divide by 7 (7 14 21 28 35 etc...)
they are all the same amount
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You can only vote on one answer.
Are there more natural numbers that you can divide be 2 without any remainders or by 3 or by 5 or by 7 ?

explain your answer.
Iwantyourhotwife · 22-25
It depends on your constraints. Any finite set will have a higher density of numbers divisible by 2 as opposed to 3 and 5, etc. But considering an infinite set, there would be no difference since it could go with no end. Even rate wouldn't matter til it became finite
Repete · 61-69, M
Divided by 2 has more numbers even if it is infinite because compared to 3 ,4, or any other number the amount of divisible numbers are more and keep getting more.
If there was a race between a car and a bicycle with both having infinite amount of fuel and stamina, the car would always be ahead and increasing its lead. Same with the numbers they would never be the same after the start.
MoonMoon · F
@Repete while its true that some infinities are bigger then other infinities.. in this case where its all countable infinities they are all the same amount
Repete · 61-69, M
I’ll still disagree, but that’s me anyway. Just because we can’t count to infinity doesn’t mean there is the same amount of numbers that can be divided by 2 as there is with 3,4, or 100. That is proven way before infinity . But that is just my opinion. @MoonMoon
Repete · 61-69, M
@NerdyPotato I agree with you on that as far as you went. Even if you take a number like 1,000,000 as the number divided into infinity there will still be an infinite amount of times there is no question about. that the question was would there be more . I agree there will be infinity with each number but for a lack of another word each infinity will be smaller with bigger numbers . Infinity divided by infinity equals 1
@Repete no, dividing by infinity is impossible. And if you think one infinity is bigger than another, you're still thinking about them as very large numbers. Infinity isn't a number at all.
Repete · 61-69, M
I know that but that doesn’t matter at all infinity starts out ,if you are talking about numbers, by 1, 2, 3........... infinity and beyond the question is more you are right that it will be infinity but the numbers that are divided by 2 will always be ahead of the ones divided by 3 .all be infinity that is true .but more is the question. But anyway have a good day. d@NerdyPotato
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dale74 · M
2 because every other number can be divided by 2 it has to be every 3rd number to be divided by 3 Every 5th number to be divided by 5 and every 7th number to be divided by 7. Even if the numbers are infinite There would still be more of them divided by 2.
NorthernBear · 51-55, M
Depends on whether the set of numbers we're working with is infinite (last option) or finite (by 2). What I want to know is who said divide by 7. wtf
There are an infinite number of multiples of each, so it's all the same.
Alison · 18-21, F
Too complicated. Primes never end 🤷‍♀️
SW-User
I can only count to ten because that's how many fingers plus thumbs that I have, so the answer is divide by 2 🫣

 
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