Prior to WW1, there were five European Powers that were considered great: Britain, Germany, France, Russia, and the Austro-Hungarian Empire.
Outside Europe: the USA was already a great power, though nowhere near as powerful as it was to become. It already had the world's biggest economy and over double Britain's population though was relatively untested in war at that time. Japan maybe deserves inclusion on the list too because they had a recent (comprehensive) victory against the Russians and were the only rising industrial force in the East. Although caveats apply because Russia was a mess and could never deploy its land army on its eastern flank. China was much too technologically backward to be on that list.
WW1 kind of proved that the A/H Empire and Russia were not really great powers at all. Both suffered crushing military defeats and collapsed completely during the conflict.
So I would say there were four and half great powers:
USA Germany France Britain Japan (the half.)
Germany and USA were probably a bit more powerful than Britain and France even then. Though only be middle distance. That distance increased a lot in WW2.
@Burnley123 [quote]Even more crucial was that the Maginot line didn't cover the Ardennes, which meant that the allies were caught in a giant pincer. Though they got battered in the Low countries anyway.[/quote]
Exactly. And the Germans did it again in December 1944, same place. The Ardennes.
[quote]Poland would have had no chance anyway, not least because Stalin was happy to annex part of it. It was a poor and relatively small country[/quote]
Stalin saw the Pact as a means to bide time.
Germany simply did not have the divisions available to fight a war against Britain and France, while invading Czechoslovakia, in 1938 - [b]and[/b] then prepare to invade Poland the following year. A September 1, 1939 invasion date of Poland would have been highly unlikely.
@beckyromero The historians I've read have sources including the diaries of Soviet generals. Stalin was genuinly furious and upset that Hitler betrayed him, ridiculous as that seems. So I'm not agreeing there.
This 1938 counterfactual has too many factors to be making such specific claims. The Czechs had a limited force. It might have been easier in 1938 but how much easier is impossible to know.
Baldwin appeasing Hitler obviously failed of course.
Germany had 48 divisions, only three of which were panzer. Another four motorized infantry. Remainder were infantry with most of their equipment drawn by horses. Five of those divisions came from Austria.
It lacked training and quality in NCOs.
Case Green allotted 37 divisions for an attack on Czechoslovakia. Three would have remained in East Prussia. That would have left eight - [u][b]eight[/b][/u] - to confront the French and the Poles.
In 1938, the Kriegsmarine three "pocket" battleships, but no battleships, no battle cruisers, no heavy cruisers, a mere seven destroyers and only seven U-boats available for Atlantic duty.
The Luftwaffe's Schnell bomber wouldn't be ready for a year and their primary system used to guide bombers to their targets with radio beams was not yet developed, either. The High Command felt it would need to invade and occupy Belgium and the Netherlands before undertaking any attack on targets in the British Isles.
Germany would have had little chance of a decisive victory in the West had the war started in 1938 in Czechoslovakia.