If its wrong for Americans to call the US "their land" since it was stolen from the Natives, does that mean Mexico doesnt belong to Spanish people?

Since they stole it from the Aztecs who owned it long before the current day Mexican people ever did?

This page is a permanent link to the reply below and its nested replies. See all post replies »

Considering that’s how every single modern day country was founded why doesn’t that same statement apply to every other country and why are we focusing on America?