Did the end of slavery directly lead to the Industrial revolution?

No, because the industrial revolution was ramping up when Britain banned slavery, and was in full swing by the time the Americans caught up. If anything, it simply forced it to occur more rapidly, especially in the American southern states.

The industrial revolution had already began in Europe and the northern part of the US. But, it definitely expedited Southern industrialization.

Most people don't realize how bad slavery was from an [i]economic[/i] and [i]development[/i] perspective (while it was of course morally wrong). When you have slaves, there's no need for innovation since you're not facing the hardship of labour or paying expensive amounts of money to those who are doing the work.

The vast majority of patents existed in the north - even in the agricultural industry - which was dominated by southerns! But after slavery ended, southerns had to start maximizing their tools and innovating.

No. It was industrial revolution that brought a different kind of slavery.

Sounds oddly like a homework question.

No, those didn’t happen at the same time everywhere. And in fact the US started to industrialize before slavery ended.

It's the other way around.

There are 70 million more slaves on this planet now, than there was in 1850. Have we really evolved at all collectively?
*edited for accuracy to compensate for a tendency to exaggerate for the sake of emphasis*

It's what happens when a capitalistic system gets a sudden massive influx of new consumers.

Naw, the Industrial Revolution had already begun by the time slavery was getting abolished.