If the president can hire a prostitute and not be charged with a crime then doesn't that set a legal precedent?

That seems to imply to me that prostitution by American citizens is now legal in the United States.
Thoughts?

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hunkalove · 61-69, M

He would have to be arrested, charged, plead guilty, then the charges dismissed for it to set a legal precedent.

Tastyfrzz · 61-69, M

@hunkalove I would argue that a lack of arrest with overwhelming evidence to support that the "crime" was committed means an unwillingness to enforce the law making the law inactive. This was the case with gays in the military. I'm sure there are many similar precedents.