Genesis 6: The sons of God and the Nephilim
Just did a lengthy study on this. Iron sharpens iron. What is the your viewpoint and what is the evidence of your claims?
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dcba9876 · 41-45, M
Let me pose this and get some feedback. I will only be referring to the "sons of God" in this message.
The identification of the "sons of God," depending on context will either be human or angel.
The proof-text passage for the "sons of God" in (Gen.6:2,4) as angels comes from (Job 1:6; 2:1; 38:7). The argument is, because the sons of God are identified as angels in Job based on context, then the sons of God in Genesis are also angels. One of the obvious problems with this interpretive method is taking the words and context in Job and inserting it into Genesis. Why is this a problem?
The phrase "sons of God" in majority usage doesn't refer to angels, but to believers (Ps.82:6/ Mal.2:10/ Lk.20:36/ Jn.1:12/ Rom.8:14-23/ Phil.2:15/ Gal.3:26/ Heb.2:10; 12:7/ 1 Jn.3:1-2); There's just not enough context in Genesis 6 to substantiate a definitive angelic interpretation
Genesis—Deuteronomy (written by Moses) always designates "sons of God" to the nation of Israel (Ex.4:22-23/ Deut.14:1; 32:5-6, 18-20.... see also Ps.73:15; 80:15/ Is.43:6/ Hos.1:10; 2:1; 11:1)
When Moses uses the word "angel" it's the Hebrew word "mal'ak" which is used 40x's in the Penteteuch, with around 15-20x's in Genesis depending on translation; the very first occurrence is found in (Gen.16:7) where it refers to a Theophany. Each reference when it refers to angels always calls them angels, not sons of God. The author of Job was aware of the term "angel" (mal'ak) in (Job 4:18).
Why would Moses use the phrase "sons of God" to refer to angels in (Genesis 6) when everywhere else he uses the term "angels" if he had spiritual beings in view?
If you carefully read (Gen.6-9) you'll consistently find the terms "he, his, flesh, man" but not once do we find any address, fault, nor judgment to any angles or angel-hybrid offspring; keep in mind when Adam/Eve sinned in the Garden, everyone involved was addressed, that includes the spiritual power behind the serpent, so it would only make sense if angels breeding with women was the cause for the flood, then the angels should also have been mentioned here in Genesis.
We know the sons of God are angels in Job, not because of the phrase itself, but because of the context.
The Greek equivalent of the Hebrew phrase "bene ha Elohim" (only found exactly in Gen.6:2, 4/ Job 1:6; 2:1) is "huioi tou Theou" which is the plural form; in (Rom.8:19), the singular form "huion tou Theou" is used of believers in Christ
The Greek equivalent of the Hebrew phrase "bene elim/Elohim" which is found in (Job 38:7/ Ps.29:1; 89:6) is "huioi Theou" plural while (Ps.89:6) is singular referring to angels....which is also found in (Mt.5:9/ Gal.3:26) describing believers in Christ. (Mt 5:9) Is especially of interest since the application of the term "sons of God" to humans is made prior to the coming of the SPIRIT and regeneration of truly born-again believers.
In (Job 38:7), the definite article is dropped. In (Hos.1:10) it's Bene El Chay and in (Ps.82:6) is Bene Elyon. So, the sons of God, sons of the Living God, and sons of the Most High God are all synonyms; all same difference with different phrases. We have the same examples with (Num.6:32) "bene Yisrael," (2 Kn.17:20) "zera Yisrael," and (Ex.16:31) "beyth Yisrael"; all three being synonyms. They are just different ways to say the same thing. So, "sons of God" is not an exclusive reference to angelic beings.
One rebuttal is that the Septuagint (LXX) in (Gen.6:2, 4/ Job 1:6; 2:1) uses the phrase "angels of God" and "My angels" in (Job 38:7) and the problem with this is that it's an interpretive translation based of the translators understanding, not an actual translation from the Hebrew into Greek
In the N.T. (e.g. Mt.5:9/ Rom.8:14/ Gal.5:26), if you take "sons of God" in Greek and translate it back into Hebrew, it actually translates back to what people are saying are the angels in Genesis.
While Angels do appear in the N.T., they are usually referred to in the Greek singular form aggelos or aggeloi, the plural form
Why am I saying all of this? Because the context of Genesis 6 does not point nor refer to angels, but to people. Nothing in Genesis whatsoever even hints to angels. The pattern of those who hold to the angelic position always go outside the writings of Moses (internal evidence in Job) and (external evidence in the pseudepigraphal works of the book of Enoch).
What say you all?
The identification of the "sons of God," depending on context will either be human or angel.
The proof-text passage for the "sons of God" in (Gen.6:2,4) as angels comes from (Job 1:6; 2:1; 38:7). The argument is, because the sons of God are identified as angels in Job based on context, then the sons of God in Genesis are also angels. One of the obvious problems with this interpretive method is taking the words and context in Job and inserting it into Genesis. Why is this a problem?
The phrase "sons of God" in majority usage doesn't refer to angels, but to believers (Ps.82:6/ Mal.2:10/ Lk.20:36/ Jn.1:12/ Rom.8:14-23/ Phil.2:15/ Gal.3:26/ Heb.2:10; 12:7/ 1 Jn.3:1-2); There's just not enough context in Genesis 6 to substantiate a definitive angelic interpretation
Genesis—Deuteronomy (written by Moses) always designates "sons of God" to the nation of Israel (Ex.4:22-23/ Deut.14:1; 32:5-6, 18-20.... see also Ps.73:15; 80:15/ Is.43:6/ Hos.1:10; 2:1; 11:1)
When Moses uses the word "angel" it's the Hebrew word "mal'ak" which is used 40x's in the Penteteuch, with around 15-20x's in Genesis depending on translation; the very first occurrence is found in (Gen.16:7) where it refers to a Theophany. Each reference when it refers to angels always calls them angels, not sons of God. The author of Job was aware of the term "angel" (mal'ak) in (Job 4:18).
Why would Moses use the phrase "sons of God" to refer to angels in (Genesis 6) when everywhere else he uses the term "angels" if he had spiritual beings in view?
If you carefully read (Gen.6-9) you'll consistently find the terms "he, his, flesh, man" but not once do we find any address, fault, nor judgment to any angles or angel-hybrid offspring; keep in mind when Adam/Eve sinned in the Garden, everyone involved was addressed, that includes the spiritual power behind the serpent, so it would only make sense if angels breeding with women was the cause for the flood, then the angels should also have been mentioned here in Genesis.
We know the sons of God are angels in Job, not because of the phrase itself, but because of the context.
The Greek equivalent of the Hebrew phrase "bene ha Elohim" (only found exactly in Gen.6:2, 4/ Job 1:6; 2:1) is "huioi tou Theou" which is the plural form; in (Rom.8:19), the singular form "huion tou Theou" is used of believers in Christ
The Greek equivalent of the Hebrew phrase "bene elim/Elohim" which is found in (Job 38:7/ Ps.29:1; 89:6) is "huioi Theou" plural while (Ps.89:6) is singular referring to angels....which is also found in (Mt.5:9/ Gal.3:26) describing believers in Christ. (Mt 5:9) Is especially of interest since the application of the term "sons of God" to humans is made prior to the coming of the SPIRIT and regeneration of truly born-again believers.
In (Job 38:7), the definite article is dropped. In (Hos.1:10) it's Bene El Chay and in (Ps.82:6) is Bene Elyon. So, the sons of God, sons of the Living God, and sons of the Most High God are all synonyms; all same difference with different phrases. We have the same examples with (Num.6:32) "bene Yisrael," (2 Kn.17:20) "zera Yisrael," and (Ex.16:31) "beyth Yisrael"; all three being synonyms. They are just different ways to say the same thing. So, "sons of God" is not an exclusive reference to angelic beings.
One rebuttal is that the Septuagint (LXX) in (Gen.6:2, 4/ Job 1:6; 2:1) uses the phrase "angels of God" and "My angels" in (Job 38:7) and the problem with this is that it's an interpretive translation based of the translators understanding, not an actual translation from the Hebrew into Greek
In the N.T. (e.g. Mt.5:9/ Rom.8:14/ Gal.5:26), if you take "sons of God" in Greek and translate it back into Hebrew, it actually translates back to what people are saying are the angels in Genesis.
While Angels do appear in the N.T., they are usually referred to in the Greek singular form aggelos or aggeloi, the plural form
Why am I saying all of this? Because the context of Genesis 6 does not point nor refer to angels, but to people. Nothing in Genesis whatsoever even hints to angels. The pattern of those who hold to the angelic position always go outside the writings of Moses (internal evidence in Job) and (external evidence in the pseudepigraphal works of the book of Enoch).
What say you all?
Charity · 61-69
@dcba9876
The New Testament tells us that we are adopted into being sons and daughters of God
https://www.kingjamesbibleonline.org/Bible-Verses-About-Adoption/
God tells David and the Israelites in various places in the Old Testament that they are his children - they are his son - referring to humans but they are not the same as being called the """Sons of God""" which the phrase mentioned around 11 times in the Bible, five times in the Old Testament and is referring in the Old Testament to the angels spiritual beings and in the New Testament humans becoming sons of God or will be called sons of God.
Sons of God: From OT to NT https://share.google/ETBTxopKRpyOMBWQf
The New Testament tells us that we are adopted into being sons and daughters of God
https://www.kingjamesbibleonline.org/Bible-Verses-About-Adoption/
God tells David and the Israelites in various places in the Old Testament that they are his children - they are his son - referring to humans but they are not the same as being called the """Sons of God""" which the phrase mentioned around 11 times in the Bible, five times in the Old Testament and is referring in the Old Testament to the angels spiritual beings and in the New Testament humans becoming sons of God or will be called sons of God.
Sons of God: From OT to NT https://share.google/ETBTxopKRpyOMBWQf