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JonathanC · 61-69, M
Yes. It is included in the contemporary definition. From Wikipedia:
[i]Latin America[/i] generally refers to territories in the Americas where the Spanish or Portuguese or French languages prevail: Mexico, most of Central and South America, and in the Caribbean, Cuba, the Dominican Republic, Haiti, and Puerto Rico. Latin America is, therefore, defined as all those parts of the Americas that were once part of the Spanish, Portuguese and French Empires. By this definition, Latin America is coterminous with Ibero-America ("Iberian America").
[i]Latin America[/i] generally refers to territories in the Americas where the Spanish or Portuguese or French languages prevail: Mexico, most of Central and South America, and in the Caribbean, Cuba, the Dominican Republic, Haiti, and Puerto Rico. Latin America is, therefore, defined as all those parts of the Americas that were once part of the Spanish, Portuguese and French Empires. By this definition, Latin America is coterminous with Ibero-America ("Iberian America").
Mariocrespo8546 · 31-35, M
@JonathanC thanks for information 👍