My thought of the day - maybe you can answer this

When languages were being created, did the creators of the different languages get together and decided that verb conjugation needed to be a thing?

The Nerd in me wants to know

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come2gether · 46-50, M

Genesis 11:5-9 (KJV) And the LORD came down to see the city and the tower, which the children of men builded.
And the LORD said, Behold, the people is one, and they have all one language; and this they begin to do: and now nothing will be restrained from them, which they have imagined to do.
Go to, let us go down, and there confound their language, that they may not understand one another's speech.
So the LORD scattered them abroad from thence upon the face of all the earth: and they left off to build the city.
Therefore is the name of it called Babel; because the LORD did there confound the language of all the earth: and from thence did the LORD scatter them abroad upon the face of all the earth.

DrWatson · 70-79, M

I wonder about something similar.

On the one hand, I understand that a language would have irregular verbs.

I also understand that a language would have regular verbs.

What I don't understand is why a language would have more than one form of regular verb, such as "hablar, comer, and vivir" in Spanish, which are of the first, second, and third conjugations respectively. (Yes, the Spanish forms can be traced back to Latin, but why did Latin have four conjugations?)