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3 proofs that 0.999... is the same as 1

First of all writing the number 0.999... isn't not valid but for the sake of this post let's allow it.

Proof 1:

This is probably the most easy to understand.

Let's assume:
x = 0.999...
Next we'll multiply both sides by 10, so we have:
10 x = 9.999...
Let's subtract
x
on both sides.
10 x - x = 9.999... - x
Since
x = 0.999...
we get:
9 x = 9.999... - 0.999... = 9
We now can divide each side by 9 because it's not equal to zero and we get:
x = 1

Because we assumed that
x = 0.999...
and we have that
x = 1
that means that
1 = 0.999...

Proof 2:

Because the real numbers are dense, that means that you can find always a real number between two real numbers. For example we can use the arithmetic mean:
(a + b) / 2
Let's assume that
0.999... ≠ 1
. That means that with the arithmetic mean we can find a number in between, with that we would get
0.999...5
? Which isn't a real number, there is nothing like a "last digit". And even it there was, that number wouldn't be in between 0.999... and 1. That means that our initial assumption is wrong thus 0.999... is equal to 1.

Proof 3:

This is basically the actual proof because it's per definition the same. Let's look at what we mean when we write 0.999... it means that ever digit after the 0 is 9. Let's rewrite that.
0.999... = 0.9 + 0.09 + 0.009 + ...
We can rewrite that further to
= 9 * 0.1 + 9 * 0.01 + 9 * 0.001 + ...
We can add "0" since it doesn't change the value, or more specifically let's add 9 and subtract 9. With that we get:
= 9 * 1 + 9 * 0.1 + 9 * 0.01 + 9 * 0.001 + ... - 9
Let's rewrite it again
= 9 * (1/1) + 9 * (1/10) + 9 * (1/100) + 9 * (1/1000) + ... + 9
= 9 * (1/10)^0 9 * (1/10)^1 + 9 * (1/10)^2 + 9 * (1/10)^3 ... + 9
We can pull 9 outside of the sum to get:
= 9 * [(1/10)^0 + (1/10)^2 + (1/10)^3 + ...] - 9
To write it a bit more abstract we get:
That this is 9 times the sum from i = 0 to infinity over (1/10)^i and from that we subtract 9 again.
This sort of sum is called geometric series, it's of the form:
The sum from i = 0 to infinity over q^i. There's a formula for the result of the sum if |q| < 1:
1/(1-q)
In our case q = 1/10 which is smaller than one, so we can use that formula here and we get:
= 9 * [1 / (1 - q)] - 9
with q = 1/10 we have:
= 9 * [1 / (1 - 1/10)] - 9
When we simplify it we get
= 9 * [1 / (9/10)] - 9 = 9 * [10 / 9] - 9 = 10 - 9 = 1
Thus by writing 0.999... it's the same as 1. And because that's ambiguous, it's not allowed to write it so that every number written as digits is unique.
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WandererTony · 56-60, M
You are wrong when you say 9.999...-0.999...=9
It is actually 8.999...91 since 0.999... had been derived by multiplying .999...by 10.
Luke73 · 26-30, M
@WandererTony 8.999…91 isn’t a number, there is no such thing as a last digit.
WandererTony · 56-60, M
@Luke73 exactly the point. You are rounding off. So when you say 1, you mean 1.0000 or 1.0001 is not clear. Hence you have rounded off your answer and are therefore inaccurate.
Luke73 · 26-30, M
@WandererTony Where do I round? In which step?
WandererTony · 56-60, M
@Luke73 any digit you mention is rounded off to the no of decimals you mention. The "..." trailing the number is not a number. It is an indication that you have not defined. If i assume ad infinitum, in which case, the answer should also be upto ad infinitum and not be mentioned as just 1
Luke73 · 26-30, M
@WandererTony That's not entirely true, every digit in 0.999... is defined, the "..." is here just used to say it goes on infinite with every digit being 9. And if it was rounded, then what's the difference?
WandererTony · 56-60, M
@Luke73 since you say it is not entirely true, it means it is not false.
However i disagree. It is entirely true. Every digit in .999 is defined. But the number of digits is not defined. It is infinite. Hence it can never equal 1. It will have a difference. Which is infinitely small. If you round it off to any number of decimals, the difference will remain 1 unit of the next decimal.
Luke73 · 26-30, M
@WandererTony You can have numbers with infinite digits, look at 1/3 or pi, they have infinite many digits but each single digit is exactly defined. So with 0.999... you have infinite many digits and there is no difference.

Also if I was wrong and there's a difference, then all of the three proofs must be wrong, so where are they wrong?
WandererTony · 56-60, M
@Luke73 i am discussing the 1st. Havent checked the rest.
Fractions and definite numbers are different. .999 ... is not even a fraction. And definitely not an integer or whole number. So it can never become one either.
Luke73 · 26-30, M
@WandererTony I never was talking about integers or whole numbers only. I was talking about real numbers.
WandererTony · 56-60, M
@Luke73 we are argueing for arguments sake.
You just said we are not talking of integers. But by your own logic, we are, since 1 is an integer and a non integer cannot be an integer. 😊
Luke73 · 26-30, M
@WandererTony Yes 1 is an integer but for example 0.3 isn't. And to have series, you have to use the real numbers at least.