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I’m a researcher of English linguistics. I have something I'd like to ask. I know that the verb “dislike” takes a gerund as its object. Are there any cases where the verb can take an infinitive as its object? How about (1) or (2)? (1) She...
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Hidenori
51-55, M
11 replies 125 views Jan 31, 2024
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Edited: 1 yr ago
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Zeusdelight · 61-69, M
Are you aware of the discussion in stack exchange?

https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/357866/can-to-infinitives-be-used-after-the-verb-dislike/358177#358177
+ 1 · Reply · Translate · Jan 31, 2024
Hidenori · 51-55, M
@Zeusdelight Thanks for the link. I will take a look.
+ 1 · Reply · Translate · Jan 31, 2024
SW-User
Sub 'going' and 'paying' and it's proper English.
+ 2 · Reply · Translate · Jan 31, 2024
SW-User
@Hidenori Are you typing on a phone? I always use a keyboard.
+ 0 · Reply · Translate · Jan 31, 2024
Hidenori · 51-55, M
@SW-User Yes. I'm typing on a phone.
+ 1 · Reply · Translate · Jan 31, 2024
SW-User
@Hidenori Tricky!
+ 0 · Reply · Translate · Jan 31, 2024
 
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