What do you think of the following statement? ... Is it true/false? Do you agree/disagree?

I see no evidence of that from history, looking back at fallen civilisations, such as the Romans, the Egyptians, the Assyrians, the Mongols (just off the top of my head).

In none of those is there any strong evidence of a 'moral decay'. Indeed, for at least the Roman and Egyptians, you'd have to say there was a stronger sense of moral rectitude at the end than when they were 'at their height'.

Decay of moral values seems to mostly just something that conservatives (in the original sense, not the political sense) whip out to castigate changes they disapprove of. Morals change, they aren't some absolute even within a society.

False. The fabric of a country is made up of the homogeneity of family units and a majority of similar or common religion.

Morality is a secondary offshoot of religious dogma.

Removal of good communication comes first. Then the removal of religion comes by substitute of the Godhead with an imposter diefic belief system such as material worship or philosophical empiracism, the breakdown of social approval of anti family behavior and rise of empathy.

Moralities are always right until they're wrong. You'll know when they're wrong.

Moral values in a wider meaning - yes, but there are many more factors. Look at this TED-Talk which is a nice approach

https://www.ted.com/talks/jared_diamond_on_why_societies_collapse

False

I agree with Thomas Paine ... people seek freedom ... once they have freedom they seek rules to limit those freedoms ... then they seek rulers to make sure the restrictions are enforced ... then, they seek freedom again

Disagree. What actually happens is the ruling group gives concessions to the "peasants" when shit is fucked up in attempt to distract them from the real issues.

IDK. Humans just sucks that's all

yes